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MCQs on Vitamins and Minerals for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1. Thiamine is vitamin
(a) B1
(b) B2
(c) B6
(d) B12

2. The iron stored in intestinal mucosal cells is complexed to
(a) Ferritin
(b) Intrinsic factor
(c) Oprelvekin
(d) Transcobalamin II
(e) Transferrin

3. Which of the following is most likely to be required by a 5-year-old boy with chronic renal in sufficiency?
(a) Erythropoietin
(b) G-CSF
(c) Interleukin - 11
(d) Stem cell factor
(e) Thrombopoietin

4. In adults, approximately ______ mg of thiamine per day is completely degraded by the tissue
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.1
(c) 1
(d) 10

5. The drug of choice for the management of osteoporosis caused by high-dose use of glucocorticoids is
(a) Alendronate
(b) Calcitonin
(c) Mestranol
(d) Oxandrolone
(e) Vitamin D

6. Which of the following drugs is correctly associated with its clinical application?
(a) Erythropoietin : Macrocytic anemia
(b) Filgrastim : Thrombocytopenia due to myelocytic leukemia
(c) Iron dextran : Severe macrocytic anemia
(d) Ferrous sulfate : Microcytic anemia of pregnancy
(e) Folic acid : Hemochromatosis

7. Conversion of methionine to cysteine depends on vitamin
(a) B1
(b) B2
(c) B6
(d) B12

8. Avidin, a protein found in egg white is an antagonist of
(a) Biotin
(b) Pantothenic acid
(c) Choline
(d) Pyridoxal

9. All of the following are important functions of magnesium (Mg) except
(a) Nerve conduction
(b) Phospholipid synthesis
(c) Muscle contractility
(d) Carbohydrate, fat, and electrolyte metabolism

10. Factors likely to cause an increase in the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level include
(a) Intramuscular (IM)injection of diazepam(Valium)
(b) Severe liver disease
(c) Chronic kidney disease

11. Physiologically carnitine plays following role
(a) Important for oxidation of fatty acids
(b) Decreases aerobic metabolism of carbohydrates
(c) Decreases rate of oxidative phosphorylation
(d) All of the above

12. Patients receiving iron therapy should be warned about
(a) Dizziness
(b) Ringing in the ears
(c) Danger of sunlight
(d) Blackening of the stool
(e) Paresthesia

13. Therapeutically vitamin B1 has been employed most successfully in the treatment of
(a) Microcytic anemia
(b) Pellagra
(c) Scurvy
(d) Beriberi
(e) Macrocytic anemia

14. Magnesium ion is necessary in
(a) Stimulating enzyme systems
(b) Muscular contraction
(c) Nerve conduction
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

15. The following derivatives of retinal shows the greatest biological potency than others
(a) 9-Cis-retinoic acid
(b) All-trans-retinoic acid
(c) All-trans-retinol
(d) 11-Cis-retinal

16. The drug used for controlling tetany is
(a) Intravenous diazepam
(b) Intramuscular vitamin D
(c) Intravenous calcium gluconate
(d) Intravenous calcitonin

17. Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by coadministering
(a) Antacids
(b) Tetracyclines
(c) Phosphates
(d) Ascorbic acid

18. The gut controls the entry of ingested iron in the body of
(a) Regulating the availability of apoferritin which acts as the carrier of iron across the mucosal cell
(b) Regulating the turnover of apoferritin-ferritin interconversion in the mucosal cell
(c) Complexing excess iron to form ferritin which remains stored in the mucosal cell and is shed off
(d) Regulating the number of transferring receptors on the mucosal cell

19. The percentage of elemental iron hydrated ferrous sulfate is
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 33%

20. In isolated fibroblast or epithelial cells, retinoids enhance the synthesis of following protein
(a) Fibronectin
(b) Collagenase
(c) Certain species of keratin
(d) All of the above

21. The side effect which primarily limits acceptability of oral iron therapy is
(a) Epigastric pain and bowel upset
(b) Black stools
(c) Staining of teeth
(d) Metallic taste

22. Iron sorbitol-citric acid differs from iron dextran in that
(a) It cannot be injected i.v.
(b) It is not excreted in urine
(c) It is not bound to transferritin in plasma
(d) It produces fewer side effects

23. Which of the following is true about iron therapy ?
(a) Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy
(b) Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia
(c) Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy
(d) Infants on breast feeding do not require medicinal iron

24. Concentrations of retinal in plasma in excess of _____ µg/dl usually are diagnostic of hypervitaminosis A
(a) 10
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 200

25. Megaloblastic anaemia occurs in
(a) Vitamin B12 but not folic acid deficiency
(b) Folic acid but not Vitamin B12 deficiency
(c) Either Vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency
(d) Only combined Vitamin B12 + folic acid deficiency

26. The daily dietary requirement of Vitamin B12 by an adult is
(a) 1–3 µg
(b) 50–100 µg
(c) 0.1–0.5 µg
(d) 1–3 µg

27. Which of the following factor(s) is/are required for the absorption of Vitamin B12 ingested in physiological amounts ?
(a) Gastric acid
(b) Gastric intrinsic factor
(c) Transcobalamine
(d) Both (a) and (b)

28. Hydroxocobalamine differs from cyanocobalamine in that
(a) It is more protein bound and better retained
(b) It is beneficial in tobacco amblyopia
(c) It benefits haematological but not neurological manifestations of Vit B12 deficiencey
(d) Both (a) and (b)

29. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by deficiency of
(a) Iron
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin C
(d) All of the above

30. Vitamin B12 is a required co-factor for the following reaction
(a) Conversion of methylmalonyl-CoA to succinyl- CoA
(b) Conversion of 5-CH3-H4-folate to H4-folate
(c) Conversion of homocysteine to methionine
(d) All of the above

31. Vitamin K is indicated for the treatment of bleeding occurring in patients
(a) Being treated with heparin
(b) Being treated with streptokinase
(c) Of obstructive jaundice
(d) Of peptic ulcer

32. Menadione (Vitamin K3)
(a) Can cause hemolysis in patients with G-6-PD deficiency
(b) Is given in large doses in patients with severe liver disease
(c) Is useful to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn
(d) Is the preparation of choice to antagonize the effect of warfarin overdose

33. Vitamin K promotes the hepatic biosynthesis of following blood clotting factor
(a) Factor I
(b) Factor II
(c) Factor VIII
(d) All of the above

34. folinic acid is principally used
(a) In pernicious anaemia
(b) In megaloblastic anaemia secondary to Vitamin B12
(c) Along with methotrexate therapy
(d) In treatment of folic acid deficiency

35. Penicillamine
(a) Is effective orally
(b) Can cause anaphylactic reactions in patients allergic to penicillin
(c) Is safe in pregnancy
(d) Is not effective in lead poisoning

36. Succimer
(a) Can significantly mobilize essential metals
(b) Produces less toxicity than Dimercaprol
(c) Is ineffective orally
(d) Is contraindicated in children


MCQs on Structure of DNA and RNA for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1. A peculiar cytochrome is observed in bacteria and it can react with molecular oxygen, what is it?
a. Cyt b
b. Cyt c
c. Cyt d
d. Cyt o

2. The genetic material in HIV is
a. ds DNA
b. ss DNA
c. s RNA
d. None of these

3. Which one of the following mutagens act only on replicating DNA?
a. Ethidium bromide
b. Nitrosogeranidine
c. Acridine orange
d. None of above

4. Poly A tail is frequently found in
a. Histone in RNA
b. Bacterial RNA
c. eukaryotic RNA

5. Which of the following is an example of RNA virus?
a. SV 40
b. T4 phage
c. Tobacco mosaic virus
d. Adeno virus

6. Genomic DNA is extracted, broken into fragments of reasonable size by a restriction endonuclease and then inserted into a cloning vector to generate chimeric vectors. The cloned fragments are called
a. Clones
b. Genomic library
c. mRNA
d. None of these

7. Transgenic animals are produced when GH gene fused with
a. MT gene
b. GH
c. GRF
d. FIX

8. In which medium the hydridoma cells grow selectively?
a. Polyethylene glycol
b. Hypoxanthine aminopterin thyminine
c. Hypoxathing-guaning phosphoribosyl transferase
d. Both b and c

9. The enzymes which are commonly used in genetic engineering are
a. Exonuclease and ligase
b. Restriction endonuclease and polymerase
c. Ligase and polymerase
d. Restriction endonuclease and ligase

10. A successful hybridoma was produced by fusing
a. Plasma cells and plasmids
b. Plasma cells and myeloma cells
c. Myeloma cells and plasmids
d. Plasma cells and bacterial cells

11. The technique involved in comparing the DNA components of two samples is known as
a. Monoclonal antibody techniques
b. Genetic finger printing
c. Recombinant DNA technology
d. Polymerase chain reaction

12. Plasmids are ideal vectors for genecloning as
a. They can be multiplied by culturing
b. They can be multiplied in the laboratory using enzymes
c. They can replicate freely outside the bacterial cell
d. They are self replicating within the bacterial cell

13. Humans normally have 46 chromosomes in skin cells. How many autosomes would be expected in a kidney cell?
a. 46
b. 23
c. 47
d. 44

14. Pasteur effect is due to
a. Change from aerobic to anaerobic
b. Providing oxygen to anaerobically respiring structures
c. Rapid utilization of ATP
d. Nonsynthesis of ATP

15. A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is
a. Trans location
b. Inversion
c. Crossing over
d. Duplication

16. The smallest unit of genetic material that can undergo mutation is called
a. Gene
b. Cistron
c. Replicon
d. Muton

17. The two chromatids of metaphase chrosome represent
a. Replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase
b. Homologous chromosomes of a diploid set
c. Non-homologous chromosomes joined at the centromere
d. Maternal and paternal chromosomes joined at the centromere

18. Malate dehydrogenase enzyme is a
a. Transferase
b. Hydrolase
c. Isomerase
d. Oxido reductase

19. In E.Coli att site is in between
a. Gal and biogenes
b. Bio and niacin genes
c. Gal and B genes
d. None of these

20. The best vector for gene cloning
a. Relaxed control plasmid
b. Stringent control plasmid
c. Both a and b
d. None of these

21. A gene that takes part in the synthesis of polypeptide is
a. Structural gene
b. Regulator gene
c. Operator gene
d. Promoter gene

22. DNA replicates during
a. G1 – phase
b. S – phase
c. G2 – phase
d. M – phase

23. A human cell containing 22 autosome and a ‘Y’ chromosome is probably a
a. Male somatic cell
b. Zygote
c. Female somatic cell
d. Sperm cell

24. Crossing-over most commonly occurs during
a. Prophase I
b. Prophase II
c. Anaphase I
d. Telophase II

25. DNA-replication is by the mechanism of
a. Conservative
b. Semiconservative
c. Dispersive
d. None of the above

26. Production of RNA from DNA is called
a. Translation
b. RNA splicing
c. Transcription
d. Transposition

27. Nucleic acids contain
a. Alanine
b. Adenine
c. Lysine
d. Arginine

28. What are the structural units of nucleic acids?
a. N-bases
b. Nucleosides
c. Nucleotides
d. Histones

29. The most important function of a gene is to synthesize
a. Enzymes
b. Hormones
c. RNA
d. DNA

30. One of the genes present exclusively on the X-chromosome in humans is concerned with
a. Baldness
b. Red-green colour baldness
c. Facial hair/moustache in males
d. Night blindness

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MCQs on Sterilization, Culture Media and Techniques for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1. The medium used in membrane filter technique was
a. EMB agar
b. EMR-Vp medium
c. Lactose broth
d. Endo agar

2. Lysol is a
a. Sterilent
b. Disinfectant
c. Antiseptic
d. Antifungal agent

3. Which of the following is a neutral stain?
a. Picric acid
b. Gmiemsa
c. Neutral red
d. Malachite green

4. Peptone water medium is an example for
a. Synthetic medium
b. Semisynthetic medium
c. Differential medium
d. None of these

5. The method in which the cells are frozen dehydrated is called
a. Pasteurization
b. Dessication
c. Disinfection
d. Lypophilization

6. The technique used to avoid all microorganisms is accomplished by
a. Sterlization
b. Disinfection
c. Surgical sterilization
d. Disinfection Sterilization

7. Thermal death time is
a. Time required to kill all cells at a given temperature
b. Temperature that kills all cells in a given time
c. Time and temperature needed to kill all cells
d. All of the above

8. A culture medium the exact composition of which is not known was called as
a. Simple
b. Complex
c. Defined
d. Natural

9. Elek’s gel diffusion test is used for the detection of
a. Tetani toxin
b. Cholera toxin
c. Diophtheria toxin
d. Toxoid

10. Temperature required for pasteurization is
a. Above 150oC
b. Below 100oC
c. 110oC
d. None of these


MCQs on Skin for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1.healthy skin requires special care to maintain its health, elasticity, vibrancy and?

A.  color
B.  pallor
C.  dryness
D.  dullness
Ans: A

2.what is the technical name for the study, including its structure, functions and treatment?

A.  etiology
B.  anatomy
C.  pathology
D.  dermatology
Ans: D

3.the outermost layer of the skin is called the ?

A.  corium
B.  dermis
C.  adipose
D.  epidermis
Ans: D

4.which of the following layers of skin does not contain and blood vessels?

A.  cutis
B.  dermis
C.  corium
D.  epidermis
Ans: D

5.what is another name for the stratum germinativum?

A.  epidermis
B.  dermal layer
C.  stratum lucidum
D.  basal layer or stratum basale
Ans: D

6.Where does mitosis (cell division) or replacment of the skin take place?

A.  stratum lucidum
B.  stratum corneum
C.  stratum granulosm
D.  statum greminativum
Ans: D

7.the stratum germinativm and what other layer of skin contain melanin?

A.  dermis
B.  subcutaneous
C.  stratum corneum
D.  stratum spinosum
Ans: D

8.on the human body, the thickest skin is located on the:

A.  thighs
B.  buttocks
C.  abdomen
D.  palms and soles
Ans: D

9.The layer of the epidermis that sheds keratin cells that are constantly replaced is the?

A.  stratum lucidum
B.  stratum corneum
C.  stratum mucosum
D.  stratum granlosum
Ans: B

10.what quality is notable about the stratum corneum?

A.  it is the thinnest layer of skin
B.  it is the weakest layer of skin
C.  it is the toughest layer of skin
D.  it is lowermost layer of skin
Ans: C

11.the stratum corneum is composed of ?

A.  melanin
B.  granules
C.  keratin cells
D.  squamous cells
Ans: C

12.which layer is the top, or uppermost, layer of the epidermis?

A.  dermis
B.  stratum corneum
C.  stratum mucosum
D.  stratum granulosum
Ans: B

13.where are the blood vessels found that supply the skin?

A.  dermis
B.  epidermis
C.  stratum lucidum
D.  stratum corneum
Ans: A

14.sudoriferous glands, sebaceous glands sensory nerve endings, blood vessels, arrector pili muscles and a major  portion of each hair follicle are found in the ?
A.  dermis
B.  epidermis
C.  stratum corneum
D.  startum spinosum
Ans: A

15.what part of the skin is often referred to as "true skin"

A.  dermis
B.  epidermis
C.  stratum corneum
D.  stratum spinosum
Ans: A

16.which layer of the skin produces collgen protein and elastin fibers to help give the skin its elasicity and pliability?

A.  dermis
B.  epidermis
C.  stratum lucidum
D.  stratum graninativum
Ans: A

17.the deterioration of collagen and elastiin fibers during fibers during the aging process causes?

A.  rosacea
B.  freckles
C.  macules
D.  wrinkles
Ans: D

18.what is major function of the sudoriferous gland?

A.  gives skin texture
B.  gives skin a healthy color
C.  protects the skin's elasticity
D.  helps to regulate body temperature
Ans: D

19.sweat or perspitation is secreted by what gland?

A.  adrenal
B.  endocrine
C.  sebaceous
D.  sudoriferous
Ans: D

20.the small openings onto the skin from the sudoriferous glands are called ?

A.  ducts
B.  pores
C.  glands
D.  follicles
Ans: B

21.the sudoriferous (sweat) glands are referred to as:

A.  nervous system
B.  muscular system
C.  endocrine system
D.  circulatory system
Ans: A

22.sudoriferous and sebaceous glands are referred to as ?

A.  pores
B.  follicles
C.  duct glands
D.  ductless glands
Ans: C

23.control and regilation of body temperature by the sudoriferous glands help maintan the body temperture at?

A.  78.0 f or 29.4 c
B.  94.0 f or 87.9 c
C.  88.6 f or 37 c
D.  98.6 f or 37 c
Ans: D

24.the greatest concentration of sudorferous glands is found on the?

A.  arms
B.  eyelids
C.  midsection of the body
D.  palms, soles,scalp and forehead and underarms
Ans: D

25.the sebaceous gland produces:

A.  melanin
B.  dandruff
C.  sebum (oil.
D.  perspiration
Ans: C

26. on what area of the body would you not find any sebaceous glands?

A.  the face
B.  in the groin area
C.  on the arms and legs
D.  on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
Ans: D

27.what is the function of sebum?

A.  carry melanin
B.  produce sweat
C.  give skin elasticity
D.  keep skin from drying and chapping
Ans: D

28.the papillary canal take oil (sebum) to the?

A.  nerve
B.  keratin
C.  blood vessels
D.  surface of the skin
Ans: D

29.where is the layer of skin called the subcutaneous layer located ?

A.  above the cuticle
B.  below the dermis
C.  above the epidermis
D.  below the adipose tissue
Ans: B

30.the subcutaneous tissue of skin is made up of mostly?

A.  keratin
B.  muscle
C.  melanin
D.  fatty cells
Ans: D

31.what layer of the skin contains large blood vessels that transport nouishment to skin and nerve ?

A.  epidermis
B.  melanin layer
C.  spinum spinosum
D.  subcutaneous layer
Ans: D

32.what factor would cause a reaction in sensory nerve fibers?

A.  fear
B.  light
C.  sound
D.  cold temperatures
Ans: D

33.what tans the skin to help protect it from harmful ultraviolet rays?

A.  sebum
B.  melanin
C.  the acid mantle
D.  the subcutaneous layer
Ans: B

34.light skin and dark skin differ in the ?

A.  number of melanocytes the contain
B.  rate and amount of melanin produced
C.  number of nerve endings the contain
D.  number of epidermal cells they contain
Ans: B

35.almost 90% of the skin's wrinkles are caused by ?

A.  exposure to the sun
B.  exposure to pollutants
C.  excessive use of astringents
D.  excessive exposure to fluorescent lights
Ans: A

36.on the human body, the thinnest skin is located on the ?

A.  chin
B.  eyelids
C.  soles of the feet
D.  skull just behind the ears
Ans: B

37.healthy skin's pH level of 4.5 to 5.5 is?

A.  highly acidic
B.  acid-balanced
C.  highly alkaline
D.  slightly alkaline
Ans: B should a salon profession react if the client has a skin disease?

A.  prescribe proper treatment
B.  suggest home remedies to client
C.  perform the service while wearing gloves
D.  refer client to a physician or dermatologist
Ans: D

39.chronic is the term used to identify condition that are ?

A.  visible
B.  brief and severe
C.  frequent and habitual
D.  influenced by weather
Ans: C

40.the term used to identify conditions that are brief and severe is ?

A.  acute
B.  chronic
C.  objective
D.  subjective
Ans: A

41.a disease that spreads by personal contact is known as?

A.  systemic
B.  congenital
C.  contagious
D.  occupational
Ans: C

42.a disease influenced by weather is referred to as?

A.  serial
B.  rational
C.  seasonal
D.  inflammable
Ans: C

43.what is the technical name for the study of the cause of diseases?

A.  etiology
B.  anatomy
C.  pathology
D.  dermatology
Ans: A

44.what is the technical term for the study of deseases?

A.  eitology
B.  anatomy
C.  pathology
D.  dermatology
Ans: C

45.indicating a medical opinion of a future condition of illness is known as a(an.?

A.  analysis
B.  diagnosis
C.  prognosis
D.  recognition
Ans: c alleegic reaction to cosmetics or chemicals which salon professionals may be susceptible to is called?

A.  papules
B.  chloasma
C.  lenigines
D.  sermatitis venenata
Ans: D example of a subjective symptom would be?

A.  itching
B.  swelling
C.  redness
D.  discharge
Ans: A

48.abnormal changes in the structure of organs or tissues are called primary and secondary?

A.  wheal
B.  fissure
C.  lesions
D.  infection
Ans: C

49.a freckle is an example of which type of primary skin lesion?

A.  lentigo
B.  papule
C.  macule
D.  leukoderma
Ans: C

50.a papule is an example of a ?

A.  tertiary lesion
B.  primary skin lesion
C.  subjective symptom
D.  secondary skin lesion
Ans: B

51.vesicles can be produced by which of the following conditions?

A.  callus
B.  verrucas
C.  poison ivy
D.  dry, scaly skin
Ans: C

52.herpes simplex is the technical term for?

A.  acne
B.  eczema
C.  psoriasis
D.  fever blisters
Ans: D

53.a solid mass in the skin that could be soft or hard, fixed or freely movable and may be elevated or deep iscalled a ?

A.  crust
B.  callus
C.  tumor
D.  wheal
Ans: C

54.a cyst is defined by which of the following description?

A.  oozing sore
B.  wheal lesions
C.  crack in the skin
D.  abnormal membranous sac
Ans: D

55.a secondary lesion appearing as round, dry patches of skin covered with rough, silvert scales is called?

A.  acne
B.  eczema
C.  psoriasis
D.  herpes simplex
Ans: C

56.which of the following skin lesions often occurs when skin loses its flesibility due to exposure to wind, cold, water, etc and cracks in the skin appear?

A.  stain
B.  tumor
C.  fissure
D.  papule
Ans: C

57.the lesion found following the healing of an injury is called a(n.?

A.  vitiligo
B.  fissure
C.  scar
D.  excoriation
Ans: C

58.which of the following terms is another name for a keratoma?

A.  a wart
B.  a callus
C.  a tumor
D.  a birthmark
Ans: B

59.what may happen to the skin if an area is subject to pressure or friction over a long period of time?

A.  it may wear thin
B.  it may become shiny
C.  it may scale and flake
D.  it may become callused
Ans: D

60.verruca is a name given to a variety of?

A.  warts
B.  ulcers
C.  fissures
D.  skin tags
Ans: A

61.melanotic sarcoma is a skin cancer that begins with?

A.  a mole
B.  an ulcer
C.  lentigines
D.  miliaria rubra
Ans: A

62.what is the technical name for liver spots?

A.  rubra
B.  crustacea
C.  chloasma
D.  leukoderma
Ans: C

63.what is another name for a stain in the skin caused by the dilation of the small blood vessels in the skin, also known as a birthmark?

A.  scar
B.  callus
C.  nevus
D.  verruca
Ans: C

64.comedone is the technical name for?

A.  nevus
B.  macule
C.  blackhead
D.  whitehead
Ans: C

65.what is the techical term for a decrease in activity of melanocytes?

A.  acne
B.  verruca
C.  leukoderma
D.  melanoderma
Ans: C

66.accumulations of hardened sebum beneath the skin are called whiteheads or:

A.  acne
B.  milia
C.  rosacea
D.  comedones
Ans: B

67.acne most often occurs on the ?

A.  legs, hips, and arms
B.  face, back and chest
C.  fingers, toes and soles
D.  ankles, knees and elbow
Ans: B

68.ance can be found in two stages, acne simplex and:

A.  rosacea
B.  asteatosis
C.  acne vulagarsis
D.  deep-seated acne
Ans: C

69.what is the professinal action to take when a client with rosacea requests a facial service with you?

A.  refer clients to another salon
B.  avoid the issue of rosacea
C.  proceed with the service but wear protective gloves
D.  proceed with the service with approval of the client's physician
Ans: D

70.what is a condition called that is characterized by dry, scaly skin caused by a decreased production of sebum?

A.  rosacea
B.  steatoma
C.  asteatosis
D.  seborrhea
Ans: C

71.which disorder is caused by excessive secretion of the sebaceous glands?

A.  millia
B.  asteatosis
C.  seborrhea
D.  bromidrosis
Ans: C

72.where does a steatoma most often appear?

A.  on the arms, legs and chest
B.  on the face, feet and hands
C.  on the fingers, feet and toes
D.  on the scalp, neck and back
Ans: D

73.what is the definition of bromidrosis?

A.  excessive sebum
B.  the lack of sebum
C.  the lack of perspiration
D.  foul-smelling perspiration
Ans: D

74.the lack of perspiration caused by fever or disease is called?

A.  anhidrosis
B.  osmidrosis
C.  bromidrosis
D.  hyperhidrosis
Ans: A

75.what is the disorder called that is an overproduction of perspiration caused by excessive heat or general body  weakness?

A.  osmidrosis
B.  anhidrosis
C.  bromidrosis
D.  hyperhidosis
Ans: D

76.which of the following terms does NOT describe a guideline that can indicate skin cancer?

A.  color
B.  border
C.  texture
D.  asymmetry
Ans: C

77.products that work tofurther cleanse the skin and return it to its normal pH include?

A.  oils
B.  massage creams
C.  manual exfoliants
D.  astringents and tonic lotions
Ans: D

78.a term that is used to describe moisturizing is ?

A.  oiling
B.  toning
C.  hydrating
D.  cleansing
Ans: C

79.applying pressure to motor points will have which of the following effects?

A.  inflame and irrtate muscles
B.  increase secretion
C.  decrease production
D.  soothe and stimulate nerves and muscles
Ans: D

80.effleurage is a massage movement that involves a:

A.  circular movement with no gliding
B.  light tapping or slapping movement
C.  light, gentle stroking or circular movement
D.  light or heavy kneading and rolling of muscles
Ans: C

81.the gentle massage movement  that often begins and ends a massage treatment is ?

A.  vibration
B.  effleurage
C.  petrissage
D.  tapotement
Ans: B

82.the massage manipulation that consists of heavy kneading and rolling of the muscles is called:

A.  friction
B.  vibration
C.  petrissage
D.  tapotement
Ans: C

83.which massage manipulation deeply stimules the muscles, nerves and skin glands?

A.  friction
B.  vibration
C.  petrissage
D.  tapotement
  Ans: C

84.the massage movement that should not be used when the client needs soothing is?

A.  gliding
B.  stroking
C.  effleurage
D.  tapotement
Ans: D


MCQs on Respiratory System for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1- The following are recognized features of Pancoast's tumour except:
1) ipsilateral Horner's syndrome
2) wasting of the dorsal interossei
3) pain in the arm radiating to the fourth and fifth fingers
4) erosion of the first rib
5) weakness of abduction at the shoulder

2- Which of the following is true concerning Whooping cough (pertussis)?
1) is a greater threat to children during the second 6 months of life, after maternal antibody has declined, than during the first 6 months
2) may lead to hemiplegia
3) is characteristically associated with a polymorph leucocytosis
4) is associated with convulsions less frequently than is the case with other febrile conditions
5) rapidly resolves with antibiotic treatment

3- A 19-year-old female developed pleural effusions, ascites and ankle swelling. Her blood pressure was 112/76 mmHg.
Investigations revealed:

  • serum alanine transferase 17 U/L (5 - 15)
  • serum total bilirubin 17 umol/L (1 - 22)
  • serum albumin 21 g/L (34 - 94)
  • serum total cholesterol 9.8 mmol/L (<5.2)

What is the next most appropriate investigation?
1) Antinuclear antibody
2) Pregnancy test
3) Prothrombin time
4) Serum protein electrophoresis
5) Urinary protein estimation

4- A 51 year old businessman complains of dyspnoea on exertion. He recently returned from a business trip to the USA. He has distant heart sounds on auscultation of the chest. A chest radiograph reveals that there is a thin rim of calcification surrounding the cardiac outline. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for these findings?
1) Uraemia
2) Tuberculosis
3) Group B coxsackie virus
4) Sarcoidosis
5) Metastatic carcinoma

5- A 48-year-old woman presented with shortness of breath, cough with heavy sputum production, and a low grade fever. She has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for 30 years. Her arterial blood gases revealed pH of 7.4, PaCO2 of 45 and a PaO2 of 78. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1) Bronchial asthma
2) Chronic bronchitis
3) Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
4) Paraneoplastic syndrome
5) Pulmonary embolism

6- A 49-year-old man with a long history of alcoholism presents with cough, haemoptysis and pleuritic chest pain. He has had night sweats and 10 kg weight loss in the last three months. On chest X-ray tgere is a subtle nodular pattern throughout the lung. He underwent a transbronchial biopsy which showed multinucleated giant cells, epithelioid cells and necrotic debris. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1) Aspergillosis
2) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
3) Small cell carcinoma
4) Squamous cell carcinoma
5) Tuberculosis

7- A 55 year old man who has a 25 year pack history of smoking presents with productive cough with mucoid sputum of 2 year duration. On examination he has scattered ronchi and wheezing. The likeliest diagnosis is :
1) Bronchial Asthma
2) Bronchiectasis
3) Chronic Bronchitis
4) Pneumonitis
5) Fibrosing Alveolitis

8- A 67 year old who is known to suffer from severe chronic bronchitis is admitted from home with an acute exacerbation. Which of the following is true?
1) An Acidosis with a low bicarbonate would be expected
2) Extensor plantar responses feature
3) Gentamicin would be a reasonable initial treatment until cultures are available
4) Oxygen therapy should aim to increase the pO2 to above 8kPa (60mmHg)
5) Peripheral oedema indicates coexisting heart failure

9- A 65-year-old woman, has smoked 50 cigarettes a day for 40 years. She has had increasing dyspnoea for the several years, but no cough. A Chest X-ray shows increased lung size along with flattening of the diaphragms, consistent with emphysema. Over the next several years she develops worsening peripheral oedema. Her vital signs show T° 36.7 C, P 80, RR 15, and BP 120/80 mm Hg. Which of the following cardiac findings is most likely to be present?
1) Mitral valve stenosis
2) Constrictive pericarditis
3) Right ventricular hypertrophy
4) Left ventricular aneurysmm
5) Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis

10 -In which of the following cases of lung cancer would surgical resection of the tumour be a reasonable therapeutic option?
1) A 56-year-old woman with an adenocarcinoma of the right lung. CT scan shows enlarged lymph nodes in the right and left hilum. PFTs show an FEV1 of 2.25 L.
(55% predicted).
2) A 59-year-old man who is found at bronchoscopy to have a tumour in the right mainstem bronchus extending to within 1 cm of the carina. Pulmonary Function
Tests (PFTs) show an FEV1 of 2.1 liters (65% of predicted normal).
3) A 62-year-old lady with a small peripheral mass who has elevated liver enzymes and a computed tomography (CT) scan showing probable metastatic deposits in
the liver PFTs show an FEV1 of 3.5 Liters (80% of predicted normal).
4) A 70-year-old man with a right lower lobe tumour 2 cm in diameter with no evidence of regional adenopathy or distant spread of disease. PFTs show an FEV1
of 0.8 Liters (28% predicted).
5) A 71-year-old man with a 3 cm tumor obstructing the right lower lobe bronchus.
PFTs show an FEV1 of 1.98 L. (43% predicted).


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