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Staff Nurse Exam MCQ on AntiBiotics Objective Questions

1. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation (b) May discolor the tears, saliva, uri...

Staff Nurse Exam MCQ on AntiBiotics Objective Questions
1. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that
(a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation
(b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange­red
(c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued
(d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic
(e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential


2. A 36­year­old woman recently treated for leukemia is admitted to hospital with malaise, chills and high fever. Gram stain of blood reveals the presence of gramnegative bacilli. The initial diagnosis is bacteremia and parenteral antibiotics are indicated. The records of the patient reveal that she had a severe uriticarial risk, hypotension, and respiratory difficulty following oral penicillin V about 6 months ago. The most appropriate drug regimen for empiric treatment is
(a) Ampicillin plus sulbactam
(b) Aztreonam
(c) Cefazolin
(d) Imipenem plus cilastatin
(e) Ticarcillin plus clavulanic acid


3. Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate?
(a) It is active against MRSA strains
(b) It is the drug of choice in community­acquired pneumonia
(c) It is a fourth­generation cephalosporin
(d) It decreases prothrombin time
(e) Its antibacterial spectrum include Bacteroides fragilis


4. A patient needs antibiotic treatment for native valve, culture­positive infective enterococcal endocarditis. His medical history includes a severe anaphylactic reaction to penicillin G during the past year. The best approach would be treatment with
(a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate
(b) Aztreonam
(c) Cefazolin plus genatamicin
(d) Meropenem
(e) Vancomycin


5. This drug has activity against many strains of Pseudomomas aeruginosa. However, when it is used alone, resistance has emerged during the course of treatment. The drug should not be used in penicillinallergic patients. Its activity against gramnegative rods is enhanced if it is given in combination with tazobactam
(a) Amoxicillin
(b) Aztreonam
(c) Imipenem
(d) Piperacillin
(e) Vancomycin


6. Which of the following statements about vancomycin is accurate?
(a) It is bacteriostatic
(b) It binds to PBPs
(c) It is not susceptible to penicillinase
(d) It has the advantage of oral bioavailability
(e) Staphylococcal enterocolitis occurs commonly with its use


7. Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false?
(a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam
(b) It causes maculopapular rashes
(c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection
(d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA
(e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use


8. The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracycline involves
(a) Binding to a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit
(b) Inhibition of translocase activity
(c) Blockade of binding of aminoacyl – tRNA to bacterial ribosomes
(d) Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyl transferases
(e) Inhibition of DNA–dependent RNA polymerase


9. Clarithromycin and erythromycin have very similar spectrums of antimicrobial activity. The major advantage of clarithromytcin is that it
(a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose
(b) Is active against strains of streptococci that are resistant to erythromycin
(c) Is more active against Mycobacterium avium complex
(d) Does not inhibit live drug­metabolizing enzymes
(e) Acts on methicillin­resistant strains of staphylococci


10. The primary mechanism underlying the resistance of gram­positive organisms to macrolide antibiotics is
(a) Methylation of binding sites on the 50S ribosomal subunit
(b) Formation of esterases that hydrolyze the lactone ring
(c) Increased activity of efflux mechanisms
(d) Formation of drug­inactivating acetyltranferases
(e) Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane



11. The appearance of markedly vacuolated, nucleated red cells in the marrow, anemia, and reticulocytopenia are characteristic dose­dependent side effects of
(a) Azithromycin
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Clindamycin
(d) Doxycycline
(e) Linezolid


12. In a patient with culture­positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to be effective is
(a) Clarithromycin
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Linezolid
(d) Minocycline
(e) Ticarcillin


13. All of the following factors may increase the risk of nephrotoxicity from gentamicin therapy except
(a) age over 70 years
(b) prolonged courses of gentamicin therapy
(c) concurrent amphotericin B therapy
(d) trough gentamicin levels below 2 mg/ml
(e) concurrent cisplatin therapy


14. Which one of the following antibiotics is likely to be most effective agent in the treatment of an infection due to enterococci if used in conjuction with penicillin G?
(a) Amikacin
(b) Gentamicin
(c) Netilmicin
(d) Streptomycin
(e) Tobramycin


15. Regarding the antibacterial action of gentamicin, which one of the following statements is most accurate?
(a) Efficacy is directly proportionate to the time that the plasma level of the drug is greater than the minimal inhibitory concentration
(b) The antibacterial action of gentamicin is not concentration ­ dependent
(c) Gentamicin continues to exert antibacterial effects even after plasma levels decrease below detectable levels
(d) Antibacterial activity is often reduced by the presence of an inhibitor of cell wall synthesis
(e) The antibacterial action of gentamicin is time – dependent


16. Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against multidrug – resistant strains of M tuberculosis, including those resistant to streptomycin?
(a) Amikacin
(b) Clarithromycin
(c) Gentamicin
(d) Meropenem
(e) Spectinomycin


17. Sterptomycin has no useful activity in the treatment of(a) Bubonic plague
(b) Brucellosis
(c) Lyme disease
(d) Tuberculosis
(e) Tularemia


18. Your 23­year­old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The past medical history includes
anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin. Worried about compliance, you would like to treat this patient with a singly dose, so you chose
(a) Cefixime
(b) Ceftriaxone
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) Spectinomycin
(e) Tetracycline


19. In the empiric treatment of severe bacterial infections of unidentified entiology, this drug, often used in combination with an aminoglycoside, provides coverage against many staphylococci
(a) Amoxicillin
(b) Clavulanic acid
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Nafcillin
(e) Tetracycline


20. Which one of the following statements about “one daily” dosing with aminoglycosides is false ?
(a) It is convenient for outpatient therapy
(b) Adjustment of dosage is less important in renal insufficiency
(c) Less nursing time is required
(d) It is often less toxic than conventional (multiple)dosing regimens
(e) Under­dosing is less of a problem



21. Regarding the recently introduced lipid formulation of amphotericin B, which one of the following statements is accurate?
(a) Affinity of amphotericin B for these lipids is greater than affinity for ergosterol
(b) They are less expensive to use than conventional amphotericin B
(c) They are more effective in fungal infections because they increase tissue uptake of amphotericin B
(d) They may decrease nephrotoxicity of amphotericin B
(e) They have wider spectrums of antifungal activity than conventional formulations of amphotericin B


22. Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs does not require supplementation of dosage following hemodialysis?
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Cefazolin
(c) Ganciclovir
(d) Tobramycin
(e) Vancomycin


23. The persistent suppression of bacterial growth that may occur following limited exposure to some antimicrobial drugs is called
(a) Time­dependent killing
(b) The post antibiotic effect
(c) Clinical synergy
(d) Concentration – dependent killing
(e) Sequential blockade


24. In which of the following groups do all four drugs warrant careful monitoring for drug related seizures in high­risk patients?
(a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazol
(b) Penicillin G, chlormphenicol, tetracycline, vancomycin
(c) Imipenem, tetracycline, vancomycin, sulfadiazine
(d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine
(e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin


25. Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug­metabolizing enzymes?
(a) Ciprofloxacin
(b) Cyclosporine
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Rifampin
(e) Tetracycline


26. Beta – lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neissera gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G.which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be effective against all strains of each of the above organisms?
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Ceftriaxone
(c) Clindamycin
(d) Gentamicin
(e) Piperacillin


27. A 19­year­old woman with recurrent sinusitis has been treated with different antibiotics on several occasions. During the course of one such treatment she developed a severe diarrhea and was hospitalized. Sigmoidoscopy revealed colitis, and pseudomembranes, were confirmed histologically. Which of the following drugs, administered orally, is most likely to be effective in the treatment of colitis due to C difficile?
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Cefazolin
(c) Clindamycin
(d) Metonidazole
(e) Tetracycline


28. Bleomycin is used in most effective drug combination regiment for the chemotherapy of testicular carcinoma. Which one of the following statements about the drug is accurate?
(a) Acts mainly in the M phase of the cell cycle
(b) Derived from the bark of yew trees
(c) Myelosuppression is dose­limiting
(d) Peripheral neuropathy occurs in more than 50% of patients
(e) Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur


29. A high school student presents with headache, fever, and cough of 2 day’s duration. Sputum is scant and nonpurulent and a Gram stain reveals many white cells but no organisms. Since this patient appears to have atypical pneumonia. You should initiate treatment with
(a) Cefazolin
(b) Clindamycin
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Gentamicin
(e) Trovafloxacin


30. Chloramphenicol is particularly effective in the treatment of
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Emphysema
(d) Rickettsial diseases
(e) Streptomyces pyogenes infections


31. An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastic drugs is its
(a) Rapid onset of action
(b) Lack of toxicity to all normal cells
(c) Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity
(d) Very broad spectrum of activity
(e) Both (a) and (b)


32. The drug of choice for scarlet fever is
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Sulfonamides
(c) Penicillin
(d) Chloromycetin
(e) Novobiocin


33. An advantge of betamethasone acetate over betamethasone sodium phosphate is
(a) Fewer allergic reactions
(b) Prompter action
(c) More sustained action
(d) Greater solubility
(e) There is no advantage


34. Cyclosporine is used for
(a) Allergies
(b) Angina
(c) Prevention of transplant rejection
(d) Steroid deficiency
(e) Treating led poisoning


35. The plasma half life of pencillin­G is longer in the new born because their
(a) Plasma protein level is low
(b) Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature
(c) Glomerular filtration rate is low
(d) Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed


36. Choose the correct statement about the role of opioid antimotility drugs in the management of diarrhoeas
(a) They are used to control diarrhoea irrespective of its etiology
(b) They should be used only as a short­term measure after ensuring that enteroinvasive organisms are not involved
(c) They are used as adjuvants to antimicrobial therapy of diarrhoea
(d) They are the drugs of choice in irritable bowel syndrome diarrhoea


37. Spectinomycin is an aminoglycoside­like antibiotic indicated for the treatment of
(a) Gram­negative bacillary septicemia
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Penicillin­resistant gonococcal infections
(d) Syphilis
(e) Gram­negative meningitis due to susceptible organisms


38. Select the antibiotic with a high therapeutic index
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Doxy
(c) Cephalexin
(d) Polymyxin B


39. Which of the following organisms is notorious for developing antimicrobial resistance rapidly ?
(a) Streptococcus pyogenes
(b) Meningococcus
(c) Treponema pallidum
(d) Escherichia coli


40. Widespread and prolonged used of an antibiotic leads to emergence of drug resistant strains because antibiotics
(a) Induce mutation in the bacteria
(b) Promote conjugation among bacteria
(c) Allow resistant strains to propagate preferentially
(d) All of the above


41. Of the following which is the most important mechanism of concurrent acquisition of multidrug resistance among bacteria ?
(a) Mutation
(b) Conjugation
(c) Transduction
(d) Transformation


42. Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to ß­lactam antibiotics because
(a) They produce a ß­lactamase which destroys methicillin and related drugs
(b) They elaborate an amidase which destroys methicillin and related drugs
(c) They have acquired a penicillin binding protein which has low affinity for ß­lactam antibiotics
(d) They are less permeable to ß­lactam antibiotics


43. A man has an Escherichia coli bacteremia with a low­grade fever (101.6°F). Appropriate management of his fever would be
(a) Give acetaminophen 650 mg orally every 4 hours
(b) Give aspirin 650 mg orally every 4 hours
(c) Give alternating doses of aspirin and acetaminophen every 4 hours
(d) Withhold antipyretics, and use the fever curve to monitor his response to antibiotic therapy
(e) Use tepid water baths to reduce the fever


44. Superinfections are more common with
(a) Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics
(b) Short courses of antibiotics
(c) Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines
(d) Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria


45. Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Tobramycin
(d) Erythromycin


46. Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease ?
(a) Chlortetracycline
(b) Cotrimoxazole
(c) Cephalexin
(d) Ethambutol


47. What is break point concentration of an antibiotic ?
(a) Concentration at which the antibiotic lyses the bacteria
(b) Concentration of the antibiotic which demarks between sensitive and resistant bacteria
(c) Concentration of the antibiotic which overcomes bacterial resistance
(d) Concentration at which a bacteriostatic antibiotic becomes bactericidal


48. Which type of antimicrobial drug combination is most likely to exhibit antagonism ?
(a) Bactericidal + Bactericidal
(b) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a highly sensitive organism
(c) Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic for a marginally sensitive organism
(d) Bacteriostatic + Bacteriostatic


49. Indicate the sulfonamide whose sodium salt yields a nearly neutral solution which is suitable for topical use in the eye
(a) Sulfadiazine
(b) Sulfacetamide
(c) Sulfamerazine
(d) Sulfamethizole


50. Sulfamethoxypyridazine and other related long acting sulfonamides have now gone into disuse because
(a) They have produced serious cutaneous reactions
(b) They have produced high incidence of crystalluria
(c) They interact with many drugs
(d) They do not penetrate blood­brain barrier


51. Which of the following is not true of sulfonamides ?
(a) They are primarily metabolized by acetylation
(b) They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble
(c) They may exert bactericidal action in the urinary tract
(d) Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections


52. Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except
(a) Gastrointestinal tract
(b) Kidney
(c) Skin
(d) Nervous system


53. A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea
(a) Ciprofloxacin
(b) Cotrimoxazole
(c) Spectinomycin
(d) Doxycycline


54. Which fluoroquinolone has markedly enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes ?
(a) Pefloxacin
(b) Ciprofloxacin
(c) Sparfloxacin
(d) Norfloxacin


55. A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm follwing penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is sensitive to all of the following drugs. Which of these drugs would be the best choice for this patient?
(a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Ampicillin
(d) cefaclor
(e) Cyclacillin


56. Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except
(a) Long postantibiotic effect
(b) Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes
(c) MBC values close to MIC values
(d) Slow development of resistance


57. Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Cotrimoxaxole
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) Ampicillin


58. In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s)
(a) It is effective in nearly all cases
(b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms
(c) Development of carrier state is less likely
(d) All of the above


59. Penicillins interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis by
(a) Inhibiting synthesis of N­acetyl muramic acid pentapeptide
(b) Inhibiting conjugation between N­acetyl muramic acid and N­acetyl glucosamine
(c) Inhibiting transpeptidases and carboxy peptidases which cross link the peptidoglycan residues
(d) Counterfeiting for D­alanine in the bacterial cell wall


60. All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except
(a) Norfloxacin
(b) Trimethoprim­sulfamethxazole
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) Carbenicillin
(e) Methenamine mandelate


61. Gram negative organisms are largely insensitive to benzyl penicillin because
(a) They produce large quantities of penicillinase
(b) They do not utilize D­alanine whose incorporation in the cell wall is inhibited by benzyl penicillin
(c) Benzyl penicillin is not able to penetrate deeper into the lipoprotein­peptidoglycan multiplayer cell wall of gram­negative bacteria
(d) Both (a) and (b)


62. The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is
(a) Benzathine penicillin
(b) Sodium penicillin
(c) Potassium penicillin
(d) Procaine penicillin


63. If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then
(a) He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected
(b) He can be given ampicillin safely
(c) He can be given oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely
(d) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him


64. The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its
(a) Narrow spectrum of activity
(b) Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction
(c) Short duration of action
(d) Neurotoxicity


65. Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for
(a) Agranulocytosis patients
(b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects
(c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever
(d) Treatment of anthrax


66. Which of the following is not a semisynthetic penicillin ?
(a) Procaine penicillin
(b) Ampicillin
(c) Cloxacillin
(d) Carbenicillin


67. Cloxacillin is indicated in infections caused by the following organism(s)
(a) Staphylococci
(b) Streptococci
(c) Gonococci
(d) All of the above


68. The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is
(a) Nausea and vomiting
(b) Loose motions
(c) Constipation
(d) Urticaria


69. Amoxicillin is inferior to ampicillin for the treatment of the following infection
(a) Typhoid
(b) Shigella enteritis
(c) Subacute bacterial endocarditis
(d) Gonorrhoea


70. Piperacillin differs from carbenicillin in the following respect(s)
(a) It is more active against pseudomonas aeruginosa
(b) It is active against Klebsiella also
(c) It is acid resistant
(d) Both (a) and (b)


71. Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because
(a) It kills bacteria that are not killed by­moxicillin
(b) It reduces renal clearance of amoxicillin
(c) It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin
(d) It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin


72. Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except
(a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus
(b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus
(c) Penicillinase producing n. gonorrhoeae
(d) ß­lactamase producing E. coli


73. A woman’s neglected hangnail has developed into a mild staphylococcal cellulites. Which of the following regimens would be appropriate oral therapy?
(a) Dicloxacillin 125 mg q6h
(b) Vancomycin 250 mg q6h
(c) Methicillin 500 mg q6h
(d) Cefazolin 1 g q8h
(e) Penicillin V 500 mg q6h


74. Cefotaxime has the following properties except
(a) It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria
(b) It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(c) It produces an active metabolite
(d) It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections


75. Select the fourth generation cephalosporin among the following
(a) Cefpirome
(b) Ceftizoxime
(c) Ceftazidime
(d) Cefuroxime


76. The most important mechanism by which tetracycline antibiotics exert antiimicrobial action is
(a) They chelate Ca2+ ions and alter permeability of bacterial cell membrane
(b) They bind to 30S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
(c) They bind to 50S ribosomes and interfere with translocation of the growing peptide chain in the bacteria
(d) They interfere with DNA mediated RNA synthesis in bacteria


77. Select the most potent tetracycline antibiotic
(a) Demeclocycline
(b) Methacycline
(c) Minocycline
(d) Doxycycline


78. An 8­year­old child presented with brownish discoloured and deformed anterior teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained. Which antibiotic could be responsible for the condition ?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Genetamicin


79. The most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is
(a) Chlortetracycline
(b) Demeclocycline
(c) oxytetracycine
(d) Doxycycline


80. Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of superinfection diarrhoea because
(a) It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic contents is low
(b) It is inactivated by the gut microflora
(c) It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora
(d) It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well


81. Tetracyclines are still the first choice drugs for the following disease.
(a) Granuloma linguinale
(b) Chancroid
(c) Syphilis
(d) Gonorrhoea in patients allergic to penicillin


82. Chloramphenicol is more active than tetracyclines against
(a) Bateroides fragilis
(b) Treponema pallidum
(c) Streptococci
(d) Staphylococci


83. Which out of the following antibiotics penetrates blood­CSF barrier the best
(a) Erythromycin
(b) Gentamicin
(c) Tetracycline
(d) Chloramphenicol


84. The most important mechanism by which gram negative bacilli acquire chloramphenicol resistance is
(a) Decreased permeability into the bacterial cell
(b) Acquisition of a plasmid encoded for chloramphenicol acetyl transferase
(c) Lowered affinity of the bacterial ribosome for chloramphenicol
(d) Switching over from ribosomal to mitochondrial protein synthesis


85. What is the most important reason for restricted clinical use of chloramphenicol ?
(a) Its narrow spectrum of activity
(b) Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance
(c) Its potential to cause bone marrow depression
(d) Its potential to cause superinfections


86. Aminoglycoside antibiotics have the following common property
(a) They are primarily active against gramnegative bacilli
(b) They are more active in acidic medium
(c) They readily enter cells and are distributed in total body water
(d) They are nearly completely metabolized in liver


87. Which aminoglycoside antibiotic causes more hearing loss than vestibular disturabance as toxic effect ?
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Gentamicin
(c) Kanamycin
(d) Sisomicin


88. Which of the following drugs has demonstrated in vitro activity against Mycobacterium aviumintracellular(MAI)?
(a) Vancomycin
(b) Clarithromycin
(c) Erythromycin base
(d) Troleandomycin
(e) Erythromycin estolate


89. The most important mechanism of bacterial resistance to an aminoglycoside antibiotic is
(a) Plasmid mediated acquisition of aminoglycoside conjugating enzyme
(b) Mutational acquisition of aminoglycoside hydrolyzing enzyme
(c) Mutation reducing affinity of ribosomal protein for the antibiotic
(d) Mutational loss of porin channels


90. Which toxic effect of aminoglycoside antibiotics is most irreversible in nature ?
(a) Vestibular damage
(b) Hearing loss
(c) Neuromuscular blockade
(d) Kidney damage


91. Streptomycin sulfate is not absorbed orally because it is
(a) Degraded by gastrointestinal enzymes
(b) Destroyed by gastric acid
(c) Highly ionized at a wide range of pH values
(d) Insoluble in water


92. The aminoglycoside antibiotic which is distinguished by its resistance to bacterial aminoglycoside
inactivating enzymes is
(a) Kanamycin
(b) Sisomicin
(c) Amikacin
(d) Tobramycin


93. An aminoglycoside antibiotic should not be used concurrently with the following drug
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Vancomycin
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) Rifampin


94. All of the following statements regarding pentamidine isethionate are true except
(a) it is indicated for treatment or prophylaxis of infection due to Pneumocystis carinii
(b) it may be administered intramuscularly, intravenously or by inhalation
(c) it has no clinically significant effect on serum glucose
(d) it is effective in the treatment of leishmaniasis


95. Prolonged oral therapy with the following antibiotic can damage intestinal villi resulting in statorrhoea and loose motions
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Neomycin
(d) Nystatin


96. Hepatitits with cholestatic jaundice occurs most frequently as an adverse reaction to the following preparation of erythromycin
(a) Erythromycin base
(b) Erythromycin stearate
(c) Erythromycin estolate
(d) Erythromycin ethylsuccinate


97. The following antibiotic is a first line drug for treatment of Mycobacterium avium complex infection in AIDS patients
(a) Clindamycin
(b) Clarithromycin
(c) Roxithromycin
(d) Erythromycin


98. Roxithromycin has the following advantages over erythromycin except
(a) It is more effective in whooping cough
(b) It causes less gastric irritation
(c) It has longer plasma half­life
(d) It is unlikely to precipitate theophylline toxicity


99. Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudo membranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Vancomycin
(d) Clindamycin


100. The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection is
(a) Cloxacillin
(b) Vancomycin
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Amikacin



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